Measuring GDP


Hey everybody,

for my final exam in macroeconomics in two weeks time I need to know why the expenditure approach, the income approach and the value added method lead to the same result when it comes to measuring GDP.

We can say that every transaction must have two sides; every payment by a buyer (expenditure) is at the same time a receipt(income) for the seller, right?

Don't know if this arguement will be sufficient when it comes to explaining why exp. & income appr. are equal...

Thanks for your advice in advance.

Kind regards

Posted By Chris on January 22, 2008 at 13:28:03:
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